Solve the IVP√yy′(x) + y 32x − x = 0 , y(4) = 0 ,using both the Leibniz and the Bernoulli methods.Show that your answers are equivalent.
Question
Solve the IVP
using both the Leibniz and the Bernoulli methods.
Show that your answers are equivalent.
Solution
To solve the initial value problem (IVP) given by the differential equation
with the initial condition , we will utilize both the Leibniz method and the Bernoulli method.
Step 1: Break Down the Problem
- Rearrange the equation to isolate .
- Identify if it fits the Bernoulli differential equation form.
- Solve using both methods and compare the results.
Step 2: Relevant Concepts
- Leibniz Method: Often involves integrating directly or using substitutions.
- Bernoulli's Equation: Has the form . We should try to express our equation in this form.
Step 3: Analysis and Detail
-
Rearranging the Leibniz Method:
Starting with the original equation: We can write it as: Simplifying gives:
-
Using Bernoulli's Method:
We need to rewrite it to resemble the Bernoulli form:
Let (where ), then :
Substituting this in gives: This is now a linear first-order differential equation.
Rearranging:
This can be solved using integrating factors.
The integrating factor is:
Multiplying through by :
The left side is the derivative:
Integrating gives:
Re-substituting :
-
Applying the Initial Condition:
From the initial condition :
Step 4: Verify and Summarize
In both approaches, we find that is the only solution consistent with the initial value.
Final Answer
The solution to the initial value problem is:
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