can assume that a test with both analytic and clinical validity has clinical utility

No, it's not accurate to assume that a test with both analytic and clinical validity automatically has clinical utility. Here's why:

1. Analytic Validity: This refers to how well the test predicts the presence or absence of a particular gene, mutation, or condition. It's about the test's accuracy and reliability.

2. Clinical Validity: This refers to the capability of the test to predict the presence or absence of a clinical condition or disease. It's about how well the test can identify or predict a patient's clinical status.

3. Clinical Utility: This refers to the usefulness of the test results in a patient's clinical management. It's about whether the test can provide information that will help in making decisions about prevention, diagnosis, or treatment of a disease.

Even if a test has both analytic and clinical validity, it may not necessarily have clinical utility. For example, a test might accurately identify a genetic mutation (analytic validity) and correctly predict the associated disease risk (clinical validity), but if there's no effective interventions or treatments for that disease, the test doesn't have much clinical utility.

Therefore, while analytic and clinical validity are important aspects of a good test, they don't automatically guarantee clinical utility.