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If ∂f∂x=0∂𝑓∂𝑥=0, the function f(x,y)𝑓(𝑥,𝑦) has no dependence on the variable x𝑥.Select one:TrueFalse

Question

If fx=0 \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 0 , the function f(x,y) f(x,y) has no dependence on the variable x x

Select one:

  • True
  • False
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Solution

Step 1: Break Down the Problem

We need to determine the implications of the statement fx=0\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 0 for the function f(x,y)f(x,y). This involves understanding the meaning of the partial derivative with respect to xx.

Step 2: Relevant Concepts

The statement fx=0\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 0 indicates that the rate of change of ff with respect to xx is zero. This suggests that varying xx does not change f(x,y)f(x,y), indicating that ff is independent of xx.

Step 3: Analysis and Detail

  1. A partial derivative fx\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} computes how ff changes as xx changes, while keeping yy constant.
  2. If fx=0\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = 0, it means that changes in xx do not affect the value of the function ff.
  3. Therefore, f(x,y)f(x,y) must be a function solely of yy (i.e., ff does not vary with xx).

Step 4: Verify and Summarize

Given that the partial derivative with respect to xx is zero, the function f(x,y)f(x,y) cannot depend on xx. This implies that the statement is indeed true.

Final Answer

True

This problem has been solved

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